High Terminal Value in a DCF, Explained

The question

Your DCF produces a terminal value that is 88% of total enterprise value. The company is a software firm with high growth in the explicit period and negative free cash flow through Year 4. Is this a problem? How would you address it with an interviewer?

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General educational practice only. This is not an actual, confidential, leaked, or firm-provided interview question. Check important technical details against primary learning materials.

Study explanation

It is a significant concern, though not automatically disqualifying. It means the vast majority of value rests on assumptions about a period you cannot forecast with precision. In this case, because FCF is negative for most of the explicit period, the explicit cash flows contribute little value, making the model essentially a bet on the terminal state.

I would first extend the explicit forecast period until the business reaches steady-state, positive FCF and stable margins, perhaps to 10 or even 15 years. I would then stress-test the terminal growth rate and WACC with sensitivity tables, and cross-check the implied exit multiple against mature software firms. I would also consider using a dividend discount model or a liquidation value if the terminal assumptions seem too heroic.

The high percentage is a warning that the explicit period is not doing its job of capturing the value creation story.

Follow-up pressure:

  • If you extend the explicit period to Year 10 and the TV percentage drops to 75%, would you be comfortable? Why or why not?
  • What is the absolute minimum explicit forecast length you would accept for this type of company, and how do you justify that number?

DCF timeline

Line itemYear 1Year 2Year 3Year 4Year 5
Free cash flow5054586368
PV of free cash flow4545444342
Terminal value (Year 5 exit)1,001
PV of terminal value621
Implied enterprise value840
Illustrative figures

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The DCF: cash flow, discount rate, terminal value

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