Explain why debt paydown increases equity value even though enterprise value is unchanged by it.

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The answer

Debt paydown increases equity value because equity is simply enterprise value minus net debt. When a company generates free cash flow and uses it to repay debt, enterprise value remains unchanged: the operating business is still worth the same multiple of the same EBITDA. But net debt falls, so the equity slice of that unchanged enterprise value becomes larger.

You are effectively transferring value from the lenders’ claim to the shareholders’ claim. The cash that was on the balance sheet has been used to retire a liability, and the equity holders now own a bigger piece of the same pie. In the value-creation bridge, this shows up as the reduction in net debt over the hold period, a direct addition to equity value with zero impact on enterprise value.

It is a mechanical return, available to any levered business that generates free cash flow, and it is purely financial engineering rather than operational improvement.

Sources & uses

Sources
Term Loan B400
Senior notes250
Sponsor equity370
Total sources1,020
Uses
Purchase of equity900
Refinance existing debt100
Financing & advisory fees20
Total uses1,020
Illustrative figures

Also asked as

  • Name the three classic drivers of the value-creation bridge and state, in one sentence each, why LPs weight their quality differently.
  • A deal enters at 7.5x on $200M EBITDA with $900M of debt and exits at 7.5x on $260M EBITDA with $550M of net debt. Build the bridge and confirm it ties to the equity gain.
  • What is the cross term in a value-creation bridge, why does it exist, and what are the two standard conventions for allocating it?
  • Entry: $90M EBITDA at 8.0x, $430M debt. Exit: $120M EBITDA at 9.5x, $250M net debt. Compute the bridge under BOTH cross-term conventions and quantify the difference in the 'operational' bar.
  • A sponsor's fundraising deck shows a bridge where 70% of value creation is labeled 'EBITDA growth.' As an LP, list three specific adjustments or re-cuts you would perform before accepting that number.
  • Why is leverage not shown as a fourth bar of enterprise-value creation, and how would you quantify its contribution to the equity return instead?
  • Entry: $120M EBITDA at 9.0x, 60% debt. Year 2: $150M dividend recap. Exit year 5: $160M EBITDA at 9.0x, exit net debt $560M. Bridge to total proceeds, compute MoIC, and explain what the recap did to IRR versus MoIC.
  • A platform is bought at 11.0x on $50M EBITDA ($330M debt). It acquires $30M of add-on EBITDA at 7.0x (fully debt-funded) and grows organically to $95M total EBITDA by exit at 11.0x with $400M net debt. Build a four-bar bridge separating organic growth, multiple arbitrage, multiple expansion, and paydown, then state what a naive two-bar bridge would have overstated.
  • Two funds each report 2.4x on comparable deals. Fund A: EBITDA +80%, multiple flat, modest paydown, sector comps flat. Fund B: EBITDA +15%, multiple from 8x to 11x while sector comps went 8x to 10.5x, heavy paydown. Decompose the quality of each return, isolate company-specific multiple expansion for Fund B, and argue which fund you would re-up with.

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LBO returns: IRR, MoIC and the value bridge

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