Explain why an LBO ability-to-pay analysis typically forms the floor of a football field. What two constraints cap the sponsor's price?

How this comes up in interviews

What the interviewer is actually testing

At the elite boutiques this lesson is tested less as "define a football field" and more as a judgment probe: do you understand that valuation is triangulation under uncertainty, and can you reason about why methodologies disagree?

The core signals of mastery:

  1. You volunteer ranges, not points. When asked "what's the company worth?", a strong candidate answers in the form "comps suggest X–Y, precedents Y–Z with the control premium, and my DCF brackets that at…" (the football field structure, spoken aloud).

  2. You know what drives sensitivity. Expect: "Which two variables would you sensitize in a DCF and why?" The answer is WACC and terminal growth (or exit multiple), because terminal value is typically 60–80% of total value and both inputs hit it non-linearly through the (WACC − g) denominator. Mentioning the convexity (value explodes as WACC approaches g) is a differentiator.

  3. You cross-check. The single most common escalation: "Your Gordon growth TV implies what exit multiple?" If you can describe backing the implied multiple out of the perpetuity (and the reverse), you show the two methods are one set of economics to you.

  4. You can explain the ordering of the field. Why do precedents sit above comps? Control premium and synergies. Why is the LBO bar the floor? The sponsor's return hurdle and leverage capacity cap its price. Interviewers use these as rapid-fire "why" chains.

  5. Context-switching. A PJT RSSG or Lazard RX interviewer may pivot: "How does a football field get used in a restructuring?" Answer: total enterprise value from the field is waterfall'd through the capital structure to find where value breaks: the class only partially covered is the fulcrum security, and valuation is the fight in Chapter 11.

Weak candidates recite the bar list. Strong candidates explain what each bar's position means and how a banker converts the picture into advice.

Common mistakes

Common traps

Trap 1: Presenting the DCF as a point estimate. Saying "my DCF says the company is worth $4.2bn" invites the interviewer to dismantle your false precision. The output is a range driven by unknowable inputs.

Say it out loud: "A DCF gives me a range, not a number: I'd sensitize WACC against terminal growth, and with WACC of 8.5–9.5% and growth of 2.0–2.5% I get roughly $3.9–4.6bn, centered around $4.2bn."

Trap 2: Building sensitivity cells where WACC ≤ g. A grid that includes WACC 7.0% against g 7.0% produces an infinite (or negative) terminal value. Candidates who read such a cell without flinching reveal they don't understand the Gordon growth math.

Say it out loud: "Perpetuity growth must be below WACC: as g approaches WACC the denominator goes to zero and value goes to infinity, which is economically impossible because no company outgrows the economy forever. I'd cap g around long-run nominal GDP, roughly 2–3%."

Trap 3: Never cross-checking the implied exit multiple. Picking g = 3.0% and WACC = 8.0% without noticing this implies, say, a 16x exit EBITDA multiple for a business whose comps trade at 9x.

Say it out loud: "Whichever terminal method I lead with, I back out what it implies for the other: my perpetuity assumptions imply an exit multiple I can sanity-check against today's comps, and my exit multiple implies a perpetual growth rate I can sanity-check against GDP."

Trap 4: Getting the football field ordering backwards or unexplained. Stating "precedents are higher" without the why, or claiming the LBO analysis is a ceiling.

Say it out loud: "Precedent transactions usually sit above trading comps because deal prices include a control premium and synergy expectations. The LBO analysis usually sets the floor: a sponsor must clear roughly a 20% IRR with no synergies, so leverage capacity and the hurdle mechanically cap what it can pay."

Trap 5: Inconsistent bridging across bars. Converting the comps bar to per-share value with one share count and the DCF bar with another, or using stale net debt. The bars are only comparable if every EV→equity bridge uses the same current net debt, same treatment of NCI/preferred, and the same diluted share count (treasury stock method at each implied price, strictly speaking).

Say it out loud: "Every bar has to cross the same bridge: same net debt, same diluted share count. Otherwise the field compares apples to oranges and the overlap band is meaningless."

Trap 6: Averaging the bars to get 'the answer.' The field is a judgment tool, not an arithmetic input.

Say it out loud: "I wouldn't average the methodologies. I'd weight them by relevance to the situation: precedents and DCF for a change-of-control fairness view, trading comps for an IPO, and I'd present a recommended range where the credible bars overlap."

Also asked as

  • Why do bankers present valuation as a football field of ranges rather than a single number? What does each of the standard bars contribute?
  • Which two variables would you sensitize in a DCF using Gordon growth terminal value, and why those two specifically?
  • Why do precedent transaction bars usually sit above trading comps bars on a football field? Give both economic reasons.
  • Your DCF sensitivity grid includes a cell with WACC of 6.5% and terminal growth of 6.5%. What does that cell produce mathematically, and why is it economically meaningless?
  • Terminal-year FCF is $90mm, WACC is 10%, terminal growth is 2%. Terminal-year EBITDA is $140mm. Compute the terminal value and the implied exit multiple, and state whether it is defensible if comps trade at 8x–9x.
  • A company's 52-week range is $30–45, comps imply $38–46, precedents imply $50–58, the DCF gives $42–56, and an LBO supports up to $48. The board asks whether to accept an all-cash bid at $52. Using the field, structure your recommendation and identify what additional work you would show.
  • Net debt is $400mm and diluted shares are 60mm. Trading comps of 9.0x–10.5x apply to forward EBITDA of $180mm. Compute the implied per-share range, then recompute if you discover $50mm of the 'cash' netted in net debt is trapped overseas and should be excluded. Quantify the per-share impact.
  • A sponsor exits in year 5 at 9.0x EBITDA of $260mm with $700mm of net debt remaining at exit, and requires a 2.5x MoIC. Lenders will fund entry leverage of 5.5x on entry EBITDA of $200mm. Solve for the maximum enterprise value the sponsor can pay today and express it as an entry multiple. Show all steps.
  • Your Gordon growth terminal value (WACC 8.5%, g 3.0%) implies a year-5 exit multiple of 14x EBITDA while comps trade at 10x today. The MD asks you to defend or fix the model in front of the client tomorrow. Walk through the full reconciliation: what is inconsistent, the two levers you could move, the cross-check math you would run after each change, and how you would present the corrected sensitivity range.

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